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TEAS English practice test: 33 free questions with answers

This free TEAS English practice test has 33 questions, the same number ATI scores on the real English and language usage section, split the same way across its three content areas: 12 on conventions of standard English, 11 on knowledge of language and 10 on using language and vocabulary. Set a timer for 33 minutes, which is the real section's pace of one minute a question, then check every answer with its explanation.

After the test you'll find a score table against the English minimums programs publish, and a map from each question to the rule it tests, so your misses turn into a short study list.

How to take this TEAS English practice test

  1. Time it. 33 minutes for 33 questions. The real section gives 37 minutes for 37 questions (33 scored, 4 unscored), so the pace is the same.
  2. Answer on paper before you open any answer. Don't skip: the real exam gives no credit for a blank.
  3. Mark the ones you guessed. A lucky guess is a miss you haven't found yet.
  4. Check your answers with the explanations, then use the score table and the miss map.

The real section is all four-option multiple choice and a few other types (multiple select, fill in the blank, ordered response, hot spot), and none of them give partial credit. These questions are all multiple choice so you can take them on paper. They are our own, written to ATI's published content areas; they are not ATI questions.

Conventions of standard English: questions 1 to 12

Spelling, punctuation, capitalization and sentence structure.

Question 1

Which word is spelled correctly?

  1. recive
  2. receeve
  3. recieve
  4. receive
Answer

D. receive i before e except after c: re-c-ei-ve.

Question 2

Which word is spelled correctly?

  1. occurence
  2. ocurrence
  3. occurrence
  4. occurance
Answer

C. occurrence Double c, double r, and -ence. Stress on the last syllable (oc-CUR) doubles the r before a suffix.

Question 3

What is the correct plural of diagnosis?

  1. diagnosis'
  2. diagnoses
  3. diagnosi
  4. diagnosises
Answer

B. diagnoses Nouns ending in -is change to -es: analysis, analyses; crisis, crises.

Question 4

Which sentence uses commas correctly?

  1. After the shift ended, Maria drove home.
  2. After the shift, ended Maria drove home.
  3. After, the shift ended Maria drove home.
  4. After the shift ended Maria, drove home.
Answer

A. After the shift ended, Maria drove home. A comma follows an introductory dependent clause (After the shift ended).

Question 5

The three ___ charts were updated before rounds.

  1. nurses
  2. nurses's
  3. nurse's
  4. nurses'
Answer

D. nurses' Plural possessive: make the plural (nurses), then add the apostrophe after the s.

Question 6

Which punctuation belongs in the blank? The lab closed early ___ the results will arrive tomorrow.

  1. no punctuation
  2. a comma
  3. a semicolon
  4. a colon
Answer

C. a semicolon Two complete sentences with no joining word take a semicolon. A comma alone would be a comma splice.

Question 7

Which sentence uses the colon correctly?

  1. Pack three things: a jacket, water and a snack.
  2. Pack: a jacket, water and a snack.
  3. Pack three things, a jacket: water and a snack.
  4. The things to pack are: a jacket, water and a snack.
Answer

A. Pack three things: a jacket, water and a snack. A colon follows a complete clause that introduces a list. In B and D the words before it are not a complete sentence.

Question 8

Which sentence is capitalized correctly?

  1. The clinic is next to Mercy Hospital on Main Street.
  2. the clinic is next to mercy hospital on main street.
  3. The clinic is next to Mercy hospital on Main street.
  4. The Clinic is next to Mercy Hospital on Main Street.
Answer

A. The clinic is next to Mercy Hospital on Main Street. Names of specific places (Mercy Hospital, Main Street) are capitalized; a common noun such as clinic is not.

Question 9

Which sentence is capitalized correctly?

  1. I booked a visit with doctor patel, our Family Doctor.
  2. I booked a visit with doctor Patel.
  3. I booked a visit with Doctor Patel, our family Doctor.
  4. I booked a visit with Doctor Patel, our family doctor.
Answer

D. I booked a visit with Doctor Patel, our family doctor. A title is capitalized before a name (Doctor Patel), not when it is used as a common noun (our family doctor).

Question 10

Which is a complete sentence?

  1. Because the patient was tired.
  2. Running down the hall to the elevator.
  3. The patient rested after lunch.
  4. Which the doctor ordered yesterday.
Answer

C. The patient rested after lunch. C has a subject (patient) and a verb (rested) and stands alone. A and D are dependent clauses; B has no subject or main verb.

Question 11

What is the best way to fix this run-on? The test starts at nine I need to leave at eight.

  1. The test starts at nine, I need to leave at eight.
  2. The test starts at nine, so I need to leave at eight.
  3. The test starts at nine so, I need to leave at eight.
  4. The test, starts at nine I need to leave at eight.
Answer

B. The test starts at nine, so I need to leave at eight. A comma plus a coordinating conjunction (so) joins two independent clauses. A is a comma splice.

Question 12

What type of sentence is this? Although the clinic was busy, the staff stayed calm, and every patient was seen.

  1. simple
  2. compound
  3. complex
  4. compound-complex
Answer

D. compound-complex Two independent clauses joined by and (compound) plus a dependent clause starting with although (complex).

Knowledge of language: questions 13 to 23

Grammar for clarity, formal and informal language, transitions and how a paragraph holds together.

Question 13

The box of gloves ___ on the top shelf.

  1. were
  2. be
  3. are
  4. is
Answer

D. is The subject is box, not gloves. Ignore the prepositional phrase of gloves: singular subject, singular verb.

Question 14

Neither the students nor the instructor ___ ready to start.

  1. were
  2. are
  3. is
  4. be
Answer

C. is With neither…nor, the verb agrees with the nearer subject: instructor, singular.

Question 15

The committee announced ___ decision on Friday.

  1. their
  2. its
  3. it's
  4. they're
Answer

B. its A committee acting as one group takes the singular its. It's means it is.

Question 16

The award went to Jamal and ___.

  1. me
  2. myself
  3. mine
  4. I
Answer

A. me After a preposition (to) use the object pronoun. Test it alone: The award went to me.

Question 17

Which sentence is clearest?

  1. Walking into the room, the monitor beeped loudly.
  2. Walking into the room, I heard the monitor beep loudly.
  3. The monitor, walking into the room, beeped loudly.
  4. Walking into the room, a loud beep came from the monitor.
Answer

B. Walking into the room, I heard the monitor beep loudly. The opening phrase must describe the subject that follows it. Only I can walk into the room; A, C and D are dangling or misplaced modifiers.

Question 18

Which sentence has parallel structure?

  1. She likes reading, jogging and to swim.
  2. She likes reading, to jog and swimming.
  3. She likes reading, jogging and swimming.
  4. She likes to read, jogging and to swim.
Answer

C. She likes reading, jogging and swimming. Items in a list take the same form: three -ing words.

Question 19

Which word should replace the underlined one? Yesterday the nurse checks the chart and called the doctor.

  1. check
  2. checked
  3. will check
  4. is checking
Answer

B. checked Yesterday and called set the past tense; both verbs must match.

Question 20

Which sentence fits a formal email to a nursing admissions office?

  1. I am writing to ask about the status of my application.
  2. Did u get my stuff yet?
  3. What's up with my application?
  4. Hey, just wanted to check on my app.
Answer

A. I am writing to ask about the status of my application. Formal writing uses complete sentences, no slang, no text abbreviations.

Question 21

Which word or phrase belongs in the blank? The patient's fever dropped overnight. ___, she went home the next morning.

  1. For example
  2. In contrast
  3. However
  4. As a result
Answer

D. As a result The second sentence is a result of the first. However and in contrast signal a contrast; for example an illustration.

Question 22

Which word or phrase belongs in the blank? Most applicants study for several weeks. ___, some try to learn everything in a few days.

  1. Therefore
  2. Similarly
  3. However
  4. For instance
Answer

C. However The second sentence contrasts with the first.

Question 23

Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) Handwashing is one of the simplest ways to stop infections from spreading. (2) Soap and water remove germs from the skin. (3) The hospital cafeteria serves lunch from 11 to 2. (4) Scrubbing for at least 20 seconds removes more germs than a quick rinse.

  1. Sentence 1
  2. Sentence 2
  3. Sentence 3
  4. Sentence 4
Answer

C. Sentence 3 Every other sentence supports the topic sentence about handwashing.

Using language and vocabulary: questions 24 to 33

Word meaning from context and word parts, the writing process, and using sources.

Question 24

Read the sentence: The wound was superficial; it barely broke the skin and needed only a bandage. What does superficial mean?

  1. on the surface
  2. infected
  3. painful
  4. deep
Answer

A. on the surface The clue is barely broke the skin.

Question 25

Read the sentence: Her answer was ambiguous, so the instructor asked her what she meant. What does ambiguous mean?

  1. angry
  2. short
  3. clear
  4. open to more than one meaning
Answer

D. open to more than one meaning The instructor had to ask what she meant, so the answer could be read more than one way.

Question 26

Read the sentence: The medication should alleviate the pain within an hour. What does alleviate mean?

  1. worsen
  2. cause
  3. relieve
  4. measure
Answer

C. relieve Medication given for pain is meant to lessen it.

Question 27

What does the prefix hypo- mean in hypothermia?

  1. above
  2. below or under
  3. heat
  4. against
Answer

B. below or under Hypo- means under or below (hypoglycemia, low blood sugar); hyper- means above.

Question 28

Using word parts, what does cardiology mean?

  1. the study of the heart
  2. inflammation of the heart
  3. a picture of the heart
  4. surgery on the heart
Answer

A. the study of the heart Cardi- means heart; -ology means the study of. Inflammation would be -itis; a recording or picture -gram.

Question 29

What does postoperative care mean?

  1. care instead of surgery
  2. care before surgery
  3. care during surgery
  4. care after surgery
Answer

D. care after surgery Post- means after; pre- means before.

Question 30

A student lists ideas and sorts them into an outline before writing a paragraph. Which stage of the writing process is this?

  1. prewriting (planning)
  2. drafting
  3. revising
  4. editing
Answer

A. prewriting (planning) Gathering and ordering ideas comes before the first draft.

Question 31

A student rereads a finished essay only to fix spelling and comma errors. Which stage is this?

  1. prewriting
  2. drafting
  3. revising
  4. editing
Answer

D. editing Editing fixes mechanics. Revising changes content and organization: adding, cutting or moving ideas.

Question 32

Which source is most credible for a paper on diabetes rates in the United States?

  1. a report from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
  2. a social media post
  3. an ad for a glucose monitor
  4. a personal blog
Answer

A. a report from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention A government health agency that publishes its data and methods. The others are opinions or selling something.

Question 33

A student copies one sentence word for word from a journal article into a paper. What must the student do?

  1. Cite it only if it contains a number
  2. Mention the topic in the conclusion
  3. Nothing, if one word is changed
  4. Put it in quotation marks and cite the source
Answer

D. Put it in quotation marks and cite the source Exact words need quotation marks and a citation. A paraphrase still needs a citation.

Score your TEAS English practice test

Count your right answers out of 33. With 33 scored questions on the real section, each is worth about 3 percentage points. ATI adjusts scores for differences between test forms, so read this as an estimate, not your official score.

Right answersPercentWhat it means against published minimums
30–3391–100%Above every English minimum in our list; keep it warm with one timed set a week
24–2973–88%Clears a 70% minimum, the highest English minimum in our list
20–2361–70%Clears a 60% minimum; close to the line for a 62% or 70% one
17–1952–58%Clears a 50% minimum only
0–16under 50%Below every English minimum in our list; study the rules behind your misses before you book

These programs from our list set an English minimum, each from the program's own admissions page: Northern Virginia CC Diagnostic Medical Sonography 70%, Northern Virginia CC Nursing (RN) 62%, Middlesex Community College Nursing 60%, Washtenaw CC Associate Degree RN 60%, North Central Texas College Vocational Nursing 50%, Northern Virginia CC Radiography 50%. Most programs set only an overall minimum, where English counts along with the other three sections. All 56 programs are in what TEAS score you need, and the TEAS score calculator turns your right answers in each section into a total.

What your misses mean

Find each question you missed or guessed, and study the rule next to it. The links go to the section of our TEAS English and language usage study guide that teaches it.

QuestionsRule testedStudy
1–3Spelling rules and pluralsSpelling
4–9Commas, apostrophes, semicolons, colons, capitalsPunctuation and capitalization
10–12Fragments, run-ons, sentence typesSentence structure
13–19Agreement, pronouns, modifiers, parallel structure, tenseGrammar for clarity
20–23Formal language, transitions, paragraph unityFormal language, paragraphs and transitions
24–29Context clues and word partsWord meaning
30–33Writing process, credible sources, citingWriting process and sources

How to fix what you missed

English misses fall into three kinds, and each has its own fix:

Then retake only the questions you missed two days later, without looking at the explanations. A question you get right twice is learned.

What the real TEAS English section looks like

Content areaScored questionsOn this test
Conventions of standard English12Questions 1–12
Knowledge of language11Questions 13–23
Using language and vocabulary to express ideas in writing10Questions 24–33
Total33 scored + 4 unscored = 37 in 37 minutes33 in 33 minutes

Counts and minutes are ATI's for the TEAS Version 7. English is the shortest section and the fastest: 60 seconds a question, against about 73 for reading, 72 for science and 90 for math. It is also the last of the four. For the whole exam, read what is on the TEAS test.

A 7-day plan after this practice test

DayWhat to do (about 30 minutes)
1This test, timed; score it and fill in your misses from the miss map
2Your weakest rule group from the map: read it, write your own examples
3Your second weakest group
4Prefixes, suffixes and roots: 20 medical and everyday words a day (hypo-, hyper-, cardi-, -itis, -ology, pre-, post-)
5Retake only your missed questions, no explanations
6A fresh timed set of English questions from another free source, 1 minute each
7Read your rule notes once; stop

For a longer runway, the study guide has a 14-day TEAS English plan. If reading is also on your list, the TEAS reading study guide covers the skills that overlap, such as word meaning from context.

TEAS English practice test FAQ

How many English questions are on the TEAS?

37: 33 scored and 4 unscored, in 37 minutes.

Are TEAS practice tests harder than the real test?

It depends on the publisher; no one can compare against the real forms except ATI. What matters more is that a practice test matches the real content areas and pace, so your score tells you something. This one matches ATI's content area counts and timing.

Is there a TEAS English practice test PDF?

You can print this page: the questions and the answers are all on it, with the answers folded away until you open them.

What is a good TEAS English score?

One above your program's English minimum, if it sets one, and high enough to lift your overall score past its overall minimum. The programs in our list that set an English minimum ask for 50% to 70%.

What grammar is on the TEAS English section?

Subject-verb and pronoun agreement, pronoun case, modifiers, parallel structure, verb tense, plus punctuation, capitalization, spelling and sentence structure (fragments, run-ons, sentence types).

Can I retake just the English section?

No. Every TEAS attempt is all four sections. Programs set their own retake rules; see how many times you can retake the TEAS.

Sources

More English: the TEAS English and language usage study guide, or all guides. To see how English compares with your reading, math and science, take the free practice test: 15 questions across the four sections, scored against your program's minimum.