TEAS reading practice test: 39 free questions with answers
This free TEAS reading practice test has 39 questions, the number ATI scores on the real reading section, split the same way: 15 on key ideas and details, 9 on craft and structure and 15 on integration of knowledge and ideas. Set a timer for 47 minutes, the real section's pace of about 73 seconds a question, and answer every question before you open any answer.
The passages are short, like the real ones: a set of directions, a table of clinic hours, a letter, two texts on the same subject, a chart with a paragraph. After the test there is a score table against the reading minimums programs publish and a map from each question to the skill it tests, so your misses become a short study list.
How to take this TEAS reading practice test
- Time it. 47 minutes for 39 questions. The real section gives 55 minutes for 45 questions (39 scored, 6 unscored), so the pace is the same: about 73 seconds a question, reading time included.
- Answer on paper before you open any answer. Don't leave blanks: the real exam scores an unanswered question as wrong, and there is no penalty for guessing.
- Mark the ones you guessed. A lucky guess is a miss you haven't found yet.
- Check your answers, then use the score table and the miss map.
Every question here is four-option multiple choice so you can take it on paper. The real section also has a few multiple select, ordered response, fill in the blank and hot spot questions, with no partial credit. All passages, names and numbers are written for practice: they describe no real clinic, person or study, and the questions are our own, not ATI's.
Want to see reading next to your math, science and English first? Our free TEAS practice test scores all four sections against your program's minimum in 15 questions.
Key ideas and details: questions 1 to 15
What the text says: main idea, details, inferences, following directions, reading a table, sequence.
Passage 1: Taking a blood pressure reading at home
Sit in a chair with your back supported and both feet flat on the floor for five minutes before you begin. Do not drink coffee, smoke or exercise in the 30 minutes before a reading. Rest your left arm on a table so that the cuff is at the level of your heart. Wrap the cuff on bare skin, one inch above the bend of the elbow. Press Start and stay still and silent until the numbers appear. Write down both numbers and the time. Wait one minute, then take a second reading the same way. If the two readings differ by more than 10 points in the top number, take a third reading and record all three.
Question 1
What should a person do immediately after writing down the first reading?
- Take a second reading
- Wait one minute
- Sit quietly for five minutes
- Remove the cuff
Answer
B. Wait one minute The steps run: write down the numbers, wait one minute, then take the second reading. A skips a step; C comes before the first reading.
Question 2
A person's first top number is 138 and the second is 124. What should they do?
- Record only the lower reading
- Record the average of the two
- Take a third reading and record all three
- Stop, because the second reading is normal
Answer
C. Take a third reading and record all three 138 − 124 = 14, more than 10 points, so the last instruction applies. Following-directions questions often hide a small calculation.
Question 3
Which action does the passage say to avoid in the 30 minutes before a reading?
- Eating a meal
- Talking on the phone
- Drinking coffee
- Taking medicine
Answer
C. Drinking coffee The passage names coffee, smoking and exercise. Talking is ruled out only during the reading itself ("stay still and silent"), and meals and medicine are not mentioned.
Question 4
Which can be inferred from the passage?
- Readings taken over clothing may be less reliable
- The right arm always gives a higher reading
- Home readings are more accurate than clinic readings
- Two readings are never enough
Answer
A. Readings taken over clothing may be less reliable The directions insist on bare skin, which only makes sense if clothing affects the result. B and C are outside the passage; D contradicts it (two readings are enough when they are close).
Passage 2: Riverside Health Center hours
| Service | Mon–Thu | Fri | Sat |
|---|---|---|---|
| Walk-in care | 8 a.m.–8 p.m. | 8 a.m.–5 p.m. | 9 a.m.–1 p.m. |
| Lab (blood draws) | 7 a.m.–3 p.m. | 7 a.m.–12 p.m. | Closed |
| Pharmacy | 9 a.m.–7 p.m. | 9 a.m.–7 p.m. | 9 a.m.–2 p.m. |
| Vaccines (appointment only) | 10 a.m.–4 p.m. | Closed | 9 a.m.–12 p.m. |
Lab patients who need a fasting test should arrive before 10 a.m. The center is closed on Sundays.
Question 5
A patient needs a fasting blood test and can only come on Friday. What is the latest time they should arrive?
- 7 a.m.
- 10 a.m.
- 12 p.m.
- 5 p.m.
Answer
B. 10 a.m. The lab is open until noon on Friday, but the note says fasting patients should arrive before 10 a.m. C is the right row with the wrong rule: a typical trap.
Question 6
Which service is open the most hours on Saturday?
- Walk-in care
- Lab
- Pharmacy
- Vaccines
Answer
C. Pharmacy 9 a.m.–2 p.m. is 5 hours, against 4 for walk-in care and 3 for vaccines; the lab is closed.
Question 7
Someone arrives at 6 p.m. on a Wednesday. Which two services can they use?
- Walk-in care and the lab
- Walk-in care and the pharmacy
- The pharmacy and vaccines
- The lab and vaccines
Answer
B. Walk-in care and the pharmacy Mon–Thu, walk-in care runs to 8 p.m. and the pharmacy to 7 p.m. The lab closes at 3 p.m. and vaccines at 4 p.m.
Passage 3: Sleep after a night shift
Nurses who work nights often say the hardest part of the job is not the work but the sleep that follows it. Coming home at 8 a.m., they try to sleep while the rest of the world is awake: neighbors mow lawns, delivery trucks idle outside, and daylight leaks around the curtains. Many sleep in two short pieces instead of one long one.
A few habits make daytime sleep longer. Wearing dark glasses on the drive home keeps morning light from signaling the brain that the day has begun. Blackout curtains and a fan or white-noise machine block the two main disturbances. Keeping the same sleep window on days off, or close to it, means the body does not have to adjust again every week. None of these habits is difficult, but together they can be the difference between four hours of broken sleep and seven hours of real rest.
Question 8
Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?
- Night shifts are harder than day shifts.
- Delivery trucks and lawn mowers keep night-shift nurses awake.
- Daytime sleep is hard for night-shift nurses, but simple habits can lengthen it.
- Every nurse should wear dark glasses when driving.
Answer
C. It covers both paragraphs: the problem and the habits. B is a detail from paragraph 1; A and D go beyond what the passage claims.
Question 9
According to the passage, why should nurses wear dark glasses on the drive home?
- To protect their eyes from glare
- To keep morning light from telling the brain the day has begun
- To help them stay awake while driving
- To block noise from traffic
Answer
B. Stated in the second paragraph. A is a real reason people wear dark glasses, but not the one this passage gives.
Question 10
Which conclusion is best supported by the passage?
- Changing sleep times on days off can make daytime sleep harder.
- Most nurses quit night shifts within a year.
- White-noise machines are better than fans.
- Night-shift nurses sleep more than day-shift nurses.
Answer
A. The passage says keeping the same window means the body "does not have to adjust again every week", so changing it forces an adjustment. B, C and D are not supported.
Question 11
Which is the best summary of the second paragraph?
- Fans are the most important tool for sleeping in the day.
- Dark glasses, blackout curtains, noise blocking and a steady sleep window help night workers sleep longer.
- Nurses get four hours of sleep after a night shift.
- Daylight is the main reason nurses cannot sleep.
Answer
B. A summary keeps every main point and leaves out the detail. A picks one tool; C turns an example ("four hours of broken sleep") into a fact; D comes from the first paragraph and leaves out noise.
Passage 4: Signing up for the fall immunization clinic
To book a free flu shot at the student health office, first log in to the student portal with your student ID number. Choose "Health Services," then "Immunization Clinic." Pick a date from the calendar; dates shown in gray are full. Fill in the health form, answering every question marked with a star. If you answer "yes" to the question about egg or vaccine allergies, do not book online: call the office instead. After you submit the form, a confirmation number appears on screen. Bring that number and a photo ID to your appointment.
Question 12
What does a student do right after choosing "Health Services"?
- Log in with the student ID number
- Pick a date from the calendar
- Choose "Immunization Clinic"
- Fill in the health form
Answer
C. The order is log in, Health Services, Immunization Clinic, date, form, submit.
Question 13
A student finds that every date in October is gray. What does this mean?
- The clinic is closed in October.
- Those dates are full.
- The student must call the office.
- The student has not logged in.
Answer
B. The passage says gray dates are full. Calling is the rule for allergies, not full dates.
Question 14
A student answers "yes" to the allergy question. What should they do?
- Submit the form and bring the confirmation number
- Pick a later date
- Skip that question
- Stop booking online and call the office
Answer
D. Stated directly. A is what everyone else does after submitting.
Question 15
What two things must a student bring to the appointment?
- The health form and the student ID number
- The confirmation number and a photo ID
- A printed calendar and the confirmation number
- A photo ID and proof of allergies
Answer
B. The last sentence. The ID number is for logging in; the form is filled in online.
Craft and structure: questions 16 to 24
How and why the text is written: word meaning, purpose, point of view and tone, fact and opinion, organization, text features.
Passage 5: A letter to the hospital board
To the Board of Lakeview Hospital:
Last month the hospital raised the daily parking fee in the visitor garage from $4 to $12. A family that visits every day during a three-week stay now pays $252 to park. For many families, that is a week of groceries. Visitors are not a burden on a hospital; they are part of a patient's care. They notice when a patient is confused, they help at mealtimes, and they keep patients company through long nights. A fee that keeps them away is a fee that harms patients. We urge the board to offer a weekly pass at a fair price, or to waive the fee for families of patients who stay longer than five days.
Sincerely, the Lakeview Patient Family Council
Question 16
What is the author's main purpose?
- To inform readers about how hospitals set prices
- To persuade the board to lower the cost of parking for families
- To describe a patient's illness
- To entertain readers with a story about a hospital stay
Answer
B. "We urge the board" is the giveaway: a request backed by reasons is persuasion.
Question 17
As used in the letter, "waive" most nearly means
- lower slightly
- raise
- not require
- signal with the hand
Answer
C. not require To waive a fee is to drop it. D is the sound-alike "wave". A is close, but the writers offer lowering as a separate option (a weekly pass).
Question 18
Which sentence from the letter states a fact rather than an opinion?
- "Visitors are not a burden on a hospital."
- "A fee that keeps them away is a fee that harms patients."
- "Last month the hospital raised the daily parking fee in the visitor garage from $4 to $12."
- "We urge the board to offer a weekly pass at a fair price."
Answer
C. It can be checked against the garage's prices. The others are judgments or requests.
Question 19
Which word best describes the author's tone?
- Concerned but respectful
- Angry and insulting
- Neutral and detached
- Humorous
Answer
A. The writers are clearly worried about the fee, but they address the board politely and proposes solutions. There is no insult and no joke, and a letter that urges a change is not neutral.
Question 20
How is the letter mainly organized?
- A sequence of events in time order
- A comparison of two hospitals
- A problem, reasons it matters, then proposed solutions
- A definition followed by examples
Answer
C. The fee (problem), what visitors do for patients (why it matters), a weekly pass or a waiver (solutions).
Passage 6: Short items
Questions 21 to 24 each stand alone.
Question 21
A student wants to find the page of a nutrition textbook that discusses vitamin D. Which part of the book is the fastest place to look?
- The glossary
- The index
- The preface
- The bibliography
Answer
B. The index An index lists topics alphabetically with page numbers. A glossary defines terms; a preface introduces the book; a bibliography lists sources.
Question 22
"I stood at the edge of the pool for ten minutes before I finally jumped in." From which point of view is this sentence written?
- First person
- Second person
- Third person limited
- Third person omniscient
Answer
A. First person The narrator says "I". Second person uses "you"; third person uses "he", "she" or "they".
Question 23
"The new nurse was reticent during her first staff meeting, speaking only when someone asked her a direct question." What does "reticent" mean?
- Angry
- Quiet and reserved
- Late
- Confident
Answer
B. The clue after the comma explains it: she spoke only when asked. Cover the word and say your own: "quiet".
Question 24
A pamphlet about diabetes puts the words blood glucose in bold the first time they appear. What is the most likely reason?
- To show the words are an opinion
- To mark a key term the reader should notice and may find defined
- To show the words are a quotation
- To show the words are spelled wrong
Answer
B. Bold type is a text feature that flags key terms. Quotations take quotation marks, not bold.
Integration of knowledge and ideas: questions 25 to 39
Putting texts together: comparing two texts, combining a text with a graphic, judging an argument and its evidence, primary and secondary sources.
Passage 7: Two texts on clean hands
Text A, from a hospital's patient handout. Washing your hands with soap and water is one of the best ways to stop germs from spreading. Wet your hands, add soap, and scrub every surface, including the backs of your hands and under your nails, for at least 20 seconds. Rinse, then dry with a clean towel. If soap and water are not available, use a hand sanitizer that contains at least 60% alcohol.
Text B, from a lifestyle blog. Busy families should keep a bottle of hand sanitizer in the car, in every bag and on the kitchen counter. It's faster than washing, children actually use it, and it is surely the reason so many families get through winter without a single cold. Soap and water? Most families can skip it.
Question 25
On which point do the two texts agree?
- Hand sanitizer is better than soap and water.
- Hand sanitizer can be used to clean hands.
- Hands should be scrubbed for 20 seconds.
- Children prefer soap to sanitizer.
Answer
B. Text A allows sanitizer when soap is not available; Text B recommends it everywhere. Only B is in both. A is Text B's view alone; C is in Text A alone.
Question 26
How does Text B differ from Text A?
- Text B gives step-by-step instructions.
- Text B makes sweeping claims without evidence rather than giving instructions.
- Text B uses more technical terms.
- Text B cites more sources.
Answer
B. Text B asserts ("surely the reason", "most families can skip it") with nothing to back it. Text A gives instructions; it is the one with steps.
Question 27
Which claim in Text B is least supported by evidence?
- Sanitizer can be kept in a car.
- Sanitizer is faster than washing.
- Sanitizer is the reason many families get through winter without a cold.
- Children use sanitizer.
Answer
C. A cold-free winter can have many causes, and the blog gives no evidence that sanitizer was one. The other claims are simple, everyday observations.
Question 28
A reader wants trustworthy advice on hand hygiene. Which text is the more credible source, and why?
- Text B, because it is easier to read
- Text A, because it comes from a hospital and gives specific instructions
- Text B, because it describes a whole winter
- They are equally credible.
Answer
B. A hospital handout is written by people whose job is infection control, and it gives checkable specifics. A lifestyle blog offers opinions without evidence.
Question 29
Based on Text A, what would its authors most likely say to the writer of Text B?
- Stop using sanitizer completely.
- Wash with soap and water when you can, and use sanitizer when you can't.
- Sanitizer with any amount of alcohol works.
- Children should not clean their own hands.
Answer
B. Text A ranks soap and water first and sanitizer as the fallback. A goes further than Text A; C contradicts its 60% rule.
Passage 8: Flu shots at Pine County clinics
Pine County's three clinics began offering walk-in flu shots, with no appointment needed, in the fall of Year 2. The table shows how many flu shots each clinic gave.
| Clinic | Year 1 (appointment only) | Year 2 (walk-in added) |
|---|---|---|
| North | 1,200 | 1,800 |
| Central | 2,000 | 2,100 |
| South | 900 | 1,500 |
The county's report notes that the Central clinic was closed for renovation for three weeks in October of Year 2, during the busiest part of flu season.
Question 30
Which clinic had the largest increase in flu shots from Year 1 to Year 2?
- North
- Central
- South
- North and South had the same increase
Answer
D. North rose by 600 (1,200 to 1,800) and South by 600 (900 to 1,500). Check every row before choosing: A is half right.
Question 31
Which clinic had the largest increase as a percentage of its Year 1 total?
- North
- Central
- South
- All three were equal
Answer
C. South 600 ÷ 900 is about 67%, against 600 ÷ 1,200 = 50% for North and 100 ÷ 2,000 = 5% for Central.
Question 32
Which piece of information from the passage best explains Central's small increase?
- Central gave the most shots in Year 1.
- Central was closed for three weeks during the busiest part of flu season.
- Walk-in shots were added at all three clinics.
- The county has three clinics.
Answer
B. Questions that combine a text with a graphic often hide the key fact in the text below the table. C applies to every clinic, so it can't explain one clinic's result.
Question 33
Based on the passage, which prediction is most reasonable for Year 3, if Central stays open all season and nothing else changes?
- Central will give fewer shots than in Year 2.
- Central will give more shots than in Year 2.
- North will give fewer shots than in Year 1.
- South will stop offering walk-in shots.
Answer
B. Central gained even while closed for three busy weeks, and the closure won't repeat. A prediction must follow from the evidence; C and D have none.
Passage 9: Later school start times
The school board of Elm City is deciding whether to move the high school's start time from 7:20 a.m. to 8:30 a.m. Supporters point out that teenagers' bodies tend to fall asleep later at night than adults' bodies do, so an early start cuts into their sleep. A board member who opposes the change argues that a later start means later dismissal, which would leave less time for sports and after-school jobs. She adds, "My own children got up at six every day and turned out fine."
Question 34
Which piece of evidence offered by the opposing board member is weakest?
- A later start means later dismissal.
- Later dismissal leaves less time for sports.
- Later dismissal leaves less time for after-school jobs.
- Her own children got up at six and turned out fine.
Answer
D. One family's experience is an anecdote; it says nothing about students in general. A to C are logical consequences of the schedule.
Question 35
Which finding, if true, would most strengthen the supporters' case?
- Most students at the school own a phone.
- At a nearby school that moved to an 8:30 start, students slept more on school nights and fewer were late.
- The football team won its league last year.
- Buses cost more to run in the afternoon.
Answer
B. It is evidence from a similar change that shows the benefit supporters claim. D, if anything, helps the other side.
Question 36
Which statement best describes the passage?
- It argues for a later start time.
- It argues against a later start time.
- It presents both sides of a debate without taking a side.
- It explains how school bus routes are planned.
Answer
C. The writer reports the supporters' reason and the opponent's reasons and makes no recommendation.
Passage 10: Sources
Questions 37 to 39 each stand alone.
Question 37
Which is a primary source about a 1918 flu outbreak in a small town?
- A history textbook chapter on pandemics
- A diary kept by a nurse who worked in the town in 1918
- A documentary made in 2015
- An encyclopedia entry on influenza
Answer
B. A primary source was made by someone there at the time. The others were written later from other sources: secondary sources.
Question 38
A student is writing a report on the side effects of a new medicine. Which source is most reliable?
- A forum where users share their experiences
- The drug company's advertisement
- An article in a peer-reviewed medical journal
- A social media post by a celebrity
Answer
C. Peer review means other experts checked the work. An advertisement has a reason to play down side effects; forums and posts are personal reports.
Question 39
An article claims a new diet "melts fat in seven days." The article was written by the company that sells the diet. What is the best reason to doubt the claim?
- The article is too short.
- The writer has a financial interest in readers believing it.
- Seven days is a long time.
- Diet articles are always wrong.
Answer
B. A source that profits from a claim is biased. D is a sweeping generalization, which the TEAS treats as a wrong answer almost every time.
Score your TEAS reading practice test
Count your right answers out of 39. With 39 scored questions on the real section, each is worth about 2.6 percentage points. ATI adjusts scores for differences between test forms, so read this as an estimate, not your official score.
| Right answers | Percent | What it means against published minimums |
|---|---|---|
| 35–39 | about 90–100% | Above every reading minimum in our list; keep it warm with one timed passage set a week |
| 29–34 | 74–87% | Clears a 73% minimum, the highest reading minimum in our list |
| 25–28 | 64–72% | Clears a 64% minimum; 27 right clears 68%, 28 clears 70%; short of 73% |
| 20–24 | 51–62% | Clears a 50% minimum; 23 or more clears a 58.7% one |
| 0–19 | under 50% | Below every reading minimum in our list; work the miss map before you book |
Reading minimums from programs in our list, each from the program's own page: Northern Virginia CC Nursing (RN) 73%, Northern Virginia CC Diagnostic Medical Sonography 70%, Washtenaw CC Associate Degree RN 70%, Redlands Community College Nursing 68%, York Technical College ADN 64%, Middlesex Community College Nursing 60%, York Technical College Practical Nursing 58.7%, Collin College ADN 50%, Hennepin Technical College Practical Nursing 50%. The table with links is in the TEAS reading study guide. Most programs set only an overall minimum, where reading counts with the other three sections; all 56 programs are in what TEAS score you need, and the TEAS score calculator turns your right answers in each section into a total.
What your misses mean
Find each question you missed or guessed and study the skill next to it. The links go to the part of our TEAS reading study guide that teaches it.
| Questions | Skill tested | Study |
|---|---|---|
| 1–3, 12–15 | Following directions and sequence | Key ideas and details |
| 5–7 | Reading a table | Key ideas and details (information in graphics) |
| 8, 11 | Main idea and summary | Key ideas and details |
| 4, 9, 10 | Details and inferences | Key ideas and details |
| 17, 23 | Word meaning from context | Craft and structure |
| 16, 18, 19, 22 | Purpose, fact and opinion, tone, point of view | Craft and structure |
| 20, 21, 24 | Text structure and text features | Craft and structure |
| 25–29 | Comparing two texts, credibility | Integration of knowledge and ideas |
| 30–33 | Combining a text with a graphic, predictions | Integration of knowledge and ideas |
| 34–39 | Judging evidence, bias, primary and secondary sources | Integration of knowledge and ideas |
Why you missed it: the four kinds of reading miss
Reading misses are rarely about not understanding the passage. They come from the wrong answers, which are written to be almost right. Sort each miss into one of these, then use the fix:
| Kind of miss | What it looks like | The fix |
|---|---|---|
| True but not the answer | You picked a detail from the passage for a main idea question (question 8, choice B) | Ask "does every paragraph support this?" before choosing a main idea |
| Right row, wrong rule | You read the table right but missed the note under it (question 5, choice C) | Read titles, notes and units before the question; circle conditions such as "fasting" or "if" |
| Too far | You chose an answer the passage might agree with but never says (question 4, choice C) | An inference must be true from the text, not just likely; cross out anything with "always", "never", "every" |
| Real meaning, wrong context | You picked a dictionary meaning that doesn't fit the sentence (question 17, choice D) | Cover the word, say your own word for the gap, then choose |
Then retake only the questions you missed, two days later, without the explanations. A question you get right twice is learned.
Pacing: how to finish 45 questions in 55 minutes
At 73 seconds a question, reading time included, pacing is where many applicants lose points they knew. A plan for the real section:
- Check the clock at question 15 and question 30. On the real section, about 18 and 37 minutes should have passed. Behind by more than 3 minutes? Speed up on the standalone questions, which take 30 seconds.
- Read the question before a long passage. Then read the passage once, with a purpose. For a table, read the title, column headers and notes first.
- Flag and move. Inside a section you can go back and flag questions. Give any one question 2 minutes at most, choose your best answer, flag it, and return if time is left. Once you submit the section, you can't go back.
- Never leave a blank. When the clock runs out, unanswered questions count as wrong.
Reading is the first section on the exam, so a steady first ten minutes sets your pace for the whole day. For the rest of test day, read our TEAS exam day tips.
What the real TEAS reading section looks like
| Content area | Scored questions | On this test |
|---|---|---|
| Key ideas and details | 15 | Questions 1–15 |
| Craft and structure | 9 | Questions 16–24 |
| Integration of knowledge and ideas | 15 | Questions 25–39 |
| Total | 39 scored + 6 unscored = 45 in 55 minutes | 39 in 47 minutes |
Counts and minutes are ATI's for the TEAS Version 7. The 6 unscored questions are mixed in and look like the rest, so treat every question as if it counts. The real passages are as short as these: a paragraph or a few, a label, a chart, a set of directions. You need no outside knowledge; every answer is in the text. Some prep pages still give other numbers, such as 64 minutes, the TEAS 6 timing; for the whole exam as it stands, read what is on the TEAS test.
A 7-day plan after this practice test
| Day | What to do (about 30 minutes) |
|---|---|
| 1 | This test, timed; score it, sort each miss into one of the four kinds above |
| 2 | Your weakest content area from the miss map: read that part of the study guide |
| 3 | Following directions and tables: rewrite one set of instructions you meet today (a label, a form) as numbered steps |
| 4 | Main idea: read three short news articles and write the main idea of each in one sentence before reading the headline again |
| 5 | Arguments and sources: take two opinion pieces on one subject and list each one's evidence and the weakest claim |
| 6 | Retake only your missed questions, no explanations |
| 7 | A fresh timed set of reading questions from another free source, 73 seconds each; then stop |
For a longer runway, follow the 14-day TEAS reading plan. Vocabulary misses overlap with English: the TEAS English practice test has 10 more word-meaning and writing questions.
TEAS reading practice test FAQ
How many reading questions are on the TEAS?
45 in 55 minutes: 39 scored and 6 unscored. Key ideas and details 15, craft and structure 9, integration of knowledge and ideas 15.
Is there a free TEAS 7 reading practice test?
This page is one: 39 questions matching the TEAS 7 scored split, with every answer explained. ATI sells its own official practice assessments; your college library may also offer LearningExpress practice tests free with a library card.
Is the TEAS reading section hard?
The passages are not difficult; the pace and the near-miss wrong answers are. Most misses are a true detail chosen for a main idea, or an inference that goes further than the text.
What is a good TEAS reading score?
One above your program's reading minimum, if it sets one, and high enough to help your total clear its overall minimum. In our list, reading minimums run from 50% to 73%.
Can I print this TEAS reading practice test?
Yes. Print the page: the passages and questions are all on it, and the answers stay folded until you open them on screen.
Do I need outside knowledge for TEAS reading?
No. Every answer is in the passage or the graphic. When a choice is true in real life but not stated or implied in the text, it is wrong.
Sources
- ATI, ATI TEAS exam details: reading questions, minutes and content areas for Version 7.
- ATI, What type of questions are on the ATI TEAS Version 7?
- ATI, ATI TEAS sections and going back to a question.
- Program reading minimums: each program's admissions page, linked from the reading study guide and our program list.
- Washoe County Library catalog, LearningExpress TEAS reading practice test: an example of free library practice. Read 2026-11-03.
More reading: the TEAS reading study guide, or all guides. To see how your reading compares with your math, science and English, take the free practice test: 15 questions across the four sections, scored against your program's minimum.